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#2 (permalink) Sun Nov 21, 2004 11:04 am Everyone has their mobile phone |
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Hi Rich7,
That's a very interesting question. Alan prefers to use this modern way of expressing the third person singular because it refers to both sexes - female as well as male. So, instead of saying Ğeveryone has his or her own mobile phoneğ (which is a rather clumsy construction) we say Ğeveryone has their own mobile phoneğ meaning that Ğeveryoneğis one person, either female or male and thus it's phone not phones.
Let me know if this makes sense to you. Thanks Torsten
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Torsten Learning Coach

Joined: 25 Sep 2003 Posts: 14492 Location: EU
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#3 (permalink) Tue Nov 23, 2004 6:53 am !way to go! |
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correctlly explained and perfectly understood.
Thanks a ton. |
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#4 (permalink) Thu May 19, 2011 18:07 pm Re: Everyone has their mobile phone |
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| Torsten wrote: |
Hi Rich7,
That's a very interesting question. Alan prefers to use this modern way of expressing the third person singular because it refers to both sexes - female as well as male. So, instead of saying Ğeveryone has his or her own mobile phoneğ (which is a rather clumsy construction) we say Ğeveryone has their own mobile phoneğ meaning that Ğeveryoneğis one person, either female or male and thus it's phone not phones.
Let me know if this makes sense to you. Thanks Torsten |
However, dear Torsten, the point lies in the use of 'their' which is plural and this plural, I am afraid, means both male and female sexes and not either male or female, which is singular. So, in my opinion, 'everyone' does not go with 'their' unless we also assign the meaning 'either he or she' to the word 'their' in the lexicon and get it accepted accordingly. I hope I have made myself clear, haven't I, Torsten?
Please comment on it.
T H Lawrence _________________ Anglophile |
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T_H_Lawrence I'm here quite often ;-)

Joined: 17 Feb 2011 Posts: 132 Location: India
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#5 (permalink) Thu May 19, 2011 18:45 pm Everyone has their mobile phone |
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Hi,
I am a stickler for 'their' as a possessive adjective to cover that odious expression 'his or her'. And as a pronoun some people use s/he for 'they'. To my mind in a sentence like this: When a child goes to school, they have to get used to the company of other children, is acceptable. After all in these kinds of constructions there is an implication that there is a refernce to male and female. Otherwise you would actually use 'she' or 'he' if you knew the gender of the person referred to.
Alan _________________ English as a Second Language You can read my ESL story Present Simple |
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Alan Co-founder

Joined: 27 Sep 2003 Posts: 13887 Location: UK
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#6 (permalink) Fri May 20, 2011 5:37 am Everyone has their mobile phone |
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Dear Alan,
In the case of 'When a child goes to school, they have to get used to the company of other children' we can more safely say: When a child goes to school, it has to get used to the company of other children' or 'When children go to school, they have to get used to the company of other children'. But my question is whether we can have two types of concord with the same subject in a single sentence. That is to say, when we begin the sentence we treat the subject as singular (child) and as we proceed we use it as plural (they). I am afraid it is inconsistent. A better way would, perhaps, be to invent one particular word meaning 'either he or she', 'either man/boy or woman/girl' which may, of course, be beyond our immediate hope. The nuance becomes more complex when we say: A student who knows their disability wants to ensure that they are not humiliated.
T H Lawrence. _________________ Anglophile |
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T_H_Lawrence I'm here quite often ;-)

Joined: 17 Feb 2011 Posts: 132 Location: India
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