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Is it inversion?



 
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ESL Forum | English Vocabulary, Grammar and Idioms
"must" vs "have to" | Subject verb agreement?
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Is it inversion? #1 (permalink) Wed Dec 27, 2006 16:44 pm   Is it inversion?		  
With the waves of immigrants came new languages ,customes and foods.
The questions is........why the verb CAME PRECEEDS languages?
Sultano
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Is it inversion? #2 (permalink) Wed Dec 27, 2006 17:18 pm   Is it inversion?		  
Sultano wrote:
With the waves of immigrants came new languages, customs and foods.

The question is........why does the verb 'came' precede 'languages'?

Yes, Sultano, this is called 'inversion', and is used for emphasis.
Conchita
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"must" vs "have to" | Subject verb agreement?
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