"ignore vs "be ignorant of"

nessie · Wed May 07, 2008 8:50 am *"ignore vs "be ignorant of"*

Hi,
1/ Are "ignore" and "be ignorant of" completely same in meaning?
2/ How about "should" and "ought to"? do they mean the same?

Many thanks in advance!
Nessie Smile

_________________
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... something we never have again, I know... I guess I really really know.. Sad

Sorry seems to be the hardest word...

Haihao · Wed May 07, 2008 9:45 am *"ignore vs "be ignorant of"*

Hi Nessie,

IMO, 1/ to ignore means to disregard while "be ignorant of" suggests "without knowledge of". 2/ I don't think any two different words could mean 100% the same thing but sometimes they are exchangeable in usage such as "should" and "ought to". However, strictly speaking, 'should' is an aux. while 'ought to' a verb. Also, the latter takes on a sense of obligation while the former bears it less.

Haihao

Molly · Wed May 07, 2008 12:11 pm *"ignore vs "be ignorant of"*

Haihao · Wed May 07, 2008 12:25 pm *"ignore vs "be ignorant of"*

Oh, yes, I agree with you. It's an auxiliary as well. Sorry, my mistake.

nessie · Fri May 09, 2008 12:38 pm *"ignore vs "be ignorant of"*

Thanks a lot, Haihao and Molly, and may I have your idea, Amy?

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