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"ignore vs "be ignorant of"



 
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ESL Forum | English Vocabulary, Grammar and Idioms
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"ignore vs "be ignorant of" #1 (permalink) Wed May 07, 2008 7:50 am   "ignore vs "be ignorant of"
 

Hi,
1/ Are "ignore" and "be ignorant of" completely same in meaning?
2/ How about "should" and "ought to"? do they mean the same?

Many thanks in advance!
Nessie :)
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Nessie
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"ignore vs "be ignorant of" #2 (permalink) Wed May 07, 2008 8:45 am   "ignore vs "be ignorant of"
 

Hi Nessie,

IMO, 1/ to ignore means to disregard while "be ignorant of" suggests "without knowledge of". 2/ I don't think any two different words could mean 100% the same thing but sometimes they are exchangeable in usage such as "should" and "ought to". However, strictly speaking, 'should' is an aux. while 'ought to' a verb. Also, the latter takes on a sense of obligation while the former bears it less.

Haihao
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"ignore vs "be ignorant of" #3 (permalink) Wed May 07, 2008 11:11 am   "ignore vs "be ignorant of"
 

Quote:
However, strictly speaking, 'should' is an aux. while 'ought to' a verb.


Isn't "ought to" a quasi/semi-auxiliary?
Molly
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"ignore vs "be ignorant of" #4 (permalink) Wed May 07, 2008 11:25 am   "ignore vs "be ignorant of"
 

Oh, yes, I agree with you. It's an auxiliary as well. Sorry, my mistake.
Haihao
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"ignore vs "be ignorant of" #5 (permalink) Fri May 09, 2008 11:38 am   "ignore vs "be ignorant of"
 

Thanks a lot, Haihao and Molly, and may I have your idea, Amy?
_________________
:(... something we never have again, I know... I guess I really really know.. :(

Sorry seems to be the hardest word...
Nessie
I'm a Communicator ;-)


Joined: 16 Feb 2008
Posts: 1102

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