Why are there V2 and V3 in English?

[SiamS]

Dear freinds,
It seems to be a stupid question I asked my English teacher when I was so young. In Thai language, we have only one verb form. For example, "I went there 5 years ago", we say in Thai only as "I go there 5 years ago", (no using went & gone). The expression "5 years ago" is enough to show it is "past tense".
As well as every verb in Thai, there is only single verb form as V1. And it can be explained a tense by using the "adverbs of time".
At that time my teacher answered me that "there is no reason for a language", just remember how to use it. I fully agreed with her. But I'm still curious that are our ideas really true? Is there something behind that? I don't seriously expect to get the answer, but please share your ideas if you know a good reason.
Thanks,
Siam

[The French]

Hello, I am The French,

I know sure one thing, if you have one action that is finished on the precise time in the past you use the simple past.

Ago is a little word that we can call "Mark time", who help us to remind the right tense that you must put for the verb.

It's like yet and since, for present perfect.

In French we have more past time tenses like others languages, you are luck, it's English

Hope it's help you

[SiamS]

Hello the French,
Thanks for sharing the idea. I ever visited Paris a few year ago. I was impressed how tough is the French Language. My sister who had ever stayed in Franch for 5 years has been still not keen on your language.
It seems a language is a state of art for each tribe. Sometimes we can not find a reason on it, just copy our descendants.
Good luck,
Siam