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#2 (permalink) Mon Sep 28, 2009 13:22 pm Some questions about the tenses |
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| Altayar wrote: |
Hi folks ,
I moved to the United states 2 months ago , and there is some words I always hear the people say it , I want to ask about these points which I'm gonna mention below : :D
1- Why do people always say : I've gotta work instead of saying : I have to work . Both have the same meaning, but "gotta" is colloquial.
2- What is the difference between saying : " I've gotta work" and " I gotta work " ? There is no difference.
3- Does the word " gotta " stand for " Got to " ? Yes.
4- why do people use the past tense of " Get " in saying " I gotta work " , instead of saying " I get to work " ? "I get to work" has a very different meaning, more like "I am allowed to work" or something similar. "I am so glad that I get to work in the factory this week: it is so much better that the mines!"
I believe the expression has developed like this. I get a baby = I receive a baby. I got a baby = I received a baby. I have got a baby = (something like) I have received a baby and I still possess it (because of the present perfect). I have a baby = I am in possession of a baby.
--When you have received something, you usually are now in possession of it; that is why possessive "have" and "have got" have grown to mean almost the same, simply that you have something.
--Then, "have got" has even infiltrated other senses of "have" besides the possessive sense. In "I have to go", the word "have" has a sense of obligation or necessity: I am obliged to go, I am forced to go, it is necessary that I go. "Have got" has come to be used in this sense, too: I have got to work = I must work. "Have got" has not yet encroached on the use of "to have" as an auxiliary verb.
--"I've got to" sounds the same as "I've gotta" in American English when casually pronounced. That is why "I've gotta" can replace "I've got to" in slang or colloquial usage, even though "gotta" isn't a word otherwise. Compare to "outta" or "gonna".
--I think "I've gotta" has been shortened by dropping "have" altogether, because shorter is easier. "I gotta" means "I've gotta" = "I have to". It has thus become a grammatical monster, but hey, it is slang.
5- What is the difference in saying " I have been emailing you in the last week " and " I have been emailed you in the last week " ? The second one is wrong, unless you mean to say "I have received an email that contained you"; Perhaps you could say this if by "you" you meant "a picture of you".
Can't we just say " I have emailed you in the last week " ? what is the difference between all the above 3 sentences ? Both "I have been emailing you in the last week" and "I have emailed you in the last week" can be right, but have a slightly different meaning; "have been emailing" here implies to me that you have sent several emails. Perhaps you could look up the difference between present continuous and present simple on Google.
Thank you ... |
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Cerberus™ I'm a Communicator ;-)

Joined: 11 Feb 2009 Posts: 1342
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#3 (permalink) Mon Sep 28, 2009 21:33 pm Some questions about the tenses |
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Thank you Cerberus™ .
For point 5 , I received an email used the tense exactly like the second sentence . The sentence was : " The amount has been refunded as of today " . Maybe the sentence I wrote above is incorrect by it's meaning , but let's use another sentence for example : I have been played football last week . Is it true ?
Thank you. |
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Altayar New Member
Joined: 08 Aug 2009 Posts: 4
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#4 (permalink) Mon Sep 28, 2009 22:11 pm Some questions about the tenses |
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I wanted to answer and check myself:)
I have been played - is wrong. Either 'I have been playing' or 'I have played' but I was taught this way: when 'last ...' is mentioned it is Past Simple Tense (in most cases) and we should say "I played football last week". Isn't it right?
What about these ones??? 'I have been playing football since last week'. and 'I have played football recently'. |
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Levon I'm new here and I like it ;-)

Joined: 06 Sep 2009 Posts: 38 Location: Armenia
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#5 (permalink) Mon Sep 28, 2009 22:21 pm Some questions about the tenses |
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Levon ______
The only thing that confused me is the message I got from a friend who is an American ! She mentioned " The amount has been refunded " . Is that right ? |
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Altayar New Member
Joined: 08 Aug 2009 Posts: 4
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#6 (permalink) Tue Sep 29, 2009 0:08 am Some questions about the tenses |
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I have been played football - wrong. The problem here is that "have been played" is passive, because a form of the verb "to be" (been) is used with a past participle (played). It means that the subject (I) is not the one who plays, but the one upon whom the action of playing is performed. It is the same as saying "[someone] has played me football", which is nonsense.
The amount has been refunded - right. The sentence "the amount has been refunded" is also passive, but here it is right. The "amount" is the subject, thus it is not the thing that refunds, but the thing upon which the act of refunding is performed. It is the same as "[someone] has refunded the amount", which is right. |
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Cerberus™ I'm a Communicator ;-)

Joined: 11 Feb 2009 Posts: 1342
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