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Which one is correct in using inversion?



 
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Use of prepositions: (At )What languages do you speak after classes? | It will snow vs. it might snow vs. it migth be snowing
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Which one is correct in using inversion? #1 (permalink) Tue Oct 13, 2009 0:30 am   Which one is correct in using inversion?
 

Someone can ask me which of these sentences uses inversion correctly ?
"Under no circumstance is the money paid" or "Under no circumstance is the money to be paid"

Thanks in advance
^^vangiang^^
I'm new here and I like it ;-)


Joined: 20 Feb 2009
Posts: 45
Location: ~Vietnam~

Which one is correct in using inversion? #2 (permalink) Tue Oct 13, 2009 1:58 am   Which one is correct in using inversion?
 

"Under no circumstance is the money to be paid"
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con·text - The part of a text or statement that surrounds a particular word or passage and determines its meaning.
Milanya
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Location: Texas, USA (at present)

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Which one is correct in using inversion? #3 (permalink) Tue Oct 13, 2009 10:31 am   Which one is correct in using inversion?
 

thank you, Milanya .
However, i'm greateful if you can explain your choice more clearly Smile
Thanks
^^vangiang^^
I'm new here and I like it ;-)


Joined: 20 Feb 2009
Posts: 45
Location: ~Vietnam~

Which one is correct in using inversion? #4 (permalink) Tue Oct 13, 2009 16:27 pm   Which one is correct in using inversion?
 

"To be paid" indicated future. Money is not paid and should not be paid under any circumstances. Stands to reason.
"Is paid" indicates past. If money is paid already, you cannot make a condition about not paying. It is already done.
_________________
con·text - The part of a text or statement that surrounds a particular word or passage and determines its meaning.
Milanya
I'm here quite often ;-)


Joined: 29 Dec 2008
Posts: 846
Location: Texas, USA (at present)

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Use of prepositions: (At )What languages do you speak after classes? | It will snow vs. it might snow vs. it migth be snowing
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