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everybody have vs everybody has



 
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everybody have vs everybody has #1 (permalink) Mon Mar 08, 2010 15:35 pm   everybody have vs everybody has
 

Hi All,

I knew both of them are correct.Could someone explain it to me when to use "everybody have" and "everybody has"?

I think everybody has a good temperament.
Does everybody have a good temperament?
Bok882002
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everybody have vs everybody has #2 (permalink) Mon Mar 08, 2010 20:44 pm   everybody have vs everybody has
 

Hi,

'Everybody means 'every single person' and so the verb should be in the singular form when you make a statement. When you ask a question in the present tense, it is the auxiliary 'do' that shows whether the subject is singular or plural. The construction is - do/does + infinitive of the main verb as in Do they have / Does every person have?

Alan
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everybody have vs everybody has #3 (permalink) Tue Mar 09, 2010 6:28 am   everybody have vs everybody has
 

Good explanation,Alan.

But i still have an doubt here.
Why I can't use has for this sentense "Does every person have?"
Bok882002
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everybody have vs everybody has #4 (permalink) Tue Mar 09, 2010 9:48 am   everybody have vs everybody has
 

Hi Bok882002,

You ask:
Quote:
Why I can't use 'has' for this sentence "Does every person have?"


As I explained, when you ask a question in the present simple you use 'do/does' with the infinitive of the verb. That means: do/does + have (infinitive).

Alan
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everybody have vs everybody has #5 (permalink) Tue Mar 09, 2010 20:48 pm   everybody have vs everybody has
 

Hi everyone,
I learned English many years ago, so I learned that we have auxiliary verbs such as:
verb to (be)= that means -be- is the base form of = is, are, am .....etc
verb to (do)= that means - do- is the base form of = does and did . So when we use( do/does/did ) in a question the main verb must be (BASE), so we use (have) as the main verb in present tense.
verb to (have)= that means - have- is the base form of = has and had.
I hope I've been helpful.
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