Have or has?

[Joe Jr.]

I have a following sentence.......

1.None of the staff have shown up because of the storm.

2.None of the staff has shown up because of the storm.

Could you please tell me which one is correct? And what is the rule?
Thanks in advance.

[Dozy]

I would accept either, but #1 seems more natural. Traditionally some people have insisted that "none" is singular, and would presumably accept only #2. Others view this "rule" as unnecessary pedantry, and allow "none" to be either singular or plural, depending on context.

This is a much debated topic; see http://www.google.co.uk/search?q=none+singular+or+plural

[Joe Jr.]

Thanks Dozy.

[Mr. Kyaw Min Lwin]

I should prefer a singular verb to goes with None of.