All ... not ... v.s. Not all ...

[Justin_Huang]

1. All of my family did not vote him.
2. Not all of my family voted for him.
3. Some of my family voted for him, but some didn't.
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According to my grammar book, all of the sentences above are equal.

But #1 is so special to me. If I did not read the grammar book, I would think it refers to "None of my family voted him."

I would like to know whether using pattern #1 is common in English speaking countries. Do native speakers never misunderstand its meaning like I do? Would you avoid using such pattern?

Thanks a lot.

[Dozy]

I would recommend avoiding #1. It is awkward and ambiguous.

[Justin_Huang]

Thank you, Dozy.
I'm glad to learn that an English specialist like you also consider it an ambiguous sentence.
I'll avoid using it.

[Dozy]

Sorry Justin, I didn't notice before, but presumably #1 should say "All of my family did not vote for him." I assume that was just a typo and not relevant to your question?

[Justin_Huang]

Hi Dozy,
You are correct. It was a typo and not relevant to my question. I understand that even there is no typo, the sentence is still ambiguous.
Thanks for your confirmation.
Justin